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Final exam Study Guide Practice Questions



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

The primitive Earth atmosphere is hypothesized to have consisted mostly of _____.
a.
oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor
b.
hydrogen, methane, ammonia, and water vapor
c.
amino acids, ATP, carbohydrates, and oxygen
d.
none of these
 

 2. 

Since the 1950s, experiments have been conducted that lead scientists to conclude that life may have originated _____.
a.
spontaneously as originally thought
b.
in small pools of water where amino acids could be concentrated
c.
in other parts of the universe
d.
when prokaryotes joined together to make the first eukaryotic cell
 

 3. 

Scientists agree that two developments must have occurred for life to come into being: the formation of simple organic molecules important to life and _____.
a.
development of prokaryotic cells in early oceans
b.
organization of molecules into complex organic molecules
c.
appearance of amino acids, monosaccharides, and lipids
d.
an atmosphere rich in water vapor, oxygen, and ATP
 

 4. 

Before biogenesis became an accepted cornerstone of biology, it was widely accepted that _____.
a.
living things could arise spontaneously from other living things
b.
Francesco Redi and Louis Pasteur would be unable to test the current beliefs
c.
flies could be produced only from other flies
d.
maggots were the immature offspring of flies
 

 5. 

Humans are thought to have evolved during the _____ Era.
a.
Cenozoic
c.
Mesozoic
b.
Paleozoic
d.
Precambrian
 

 6. 

The Geologic Time Scale begins at the formation of Earth approximately _____ years ago.
a.
4.6 thousand
c.
46 million
b.
4.6 million
d.
4.6 billion
 

 7. 

Which of the following statements are true about fossils?
a.
Fossils are usually found in sedimentary rock layers.
b.
There are many different ways that fossils can be formed.
c.
Fossil insects that were trapped in ice or hardened into amber.
d.
all of these
 

 8. 

Which of the following fossils are not found in sedimentary rock?
a.
imprints
c.
amber
b.
frozen mammoths
d.
petrified wood
 

 9. 

While looking for fossils on an eroded hillside, you discover fossil coral and fish in one layer. In a layer just above, you find the fossil imprint of a fern frond and some fossil moss. Assuming the rock has not been disturbed, which of the following is the most probable conclusion?
a.
The area had been a sea until recent times.
b.
A forest had once grown there but had become submerged by water.
c.
A sea had been replaced by land in ancient times.
d.
A saltwater sea had changed to a freshwater lake in ancient times.
 

 10. 

According to one theory, the first prokaryotes probably obtained their food _____.
a.
through the synthesis of organic molecules from inorganic molecules
b.
through a combination of photosynthesis and aerobic respiration
c.
by eating carbohydrates formed by autotrophs
d.
by consuming organic molecules available in their environment
 

 11. 

Which group of organisms is believed to have been the earliest to evolve?
a.
land plants
c.
aquatic dinosaurs
b.
cyanobacteria
d.
mammals
 

 12. 

Which fact is the basis for using the fossil record as evidence that evolution has taken place?
a.
In undisturbed layers of rock strata, the older fossils are found in the deeper layers.
b.
There are fossils of all life-forms to be found in rock layers.
c.
All fossils were formed at the same time.
d.
Fossils have been shown to provide a complete record of human evolution.
 

 13. 

A clear fish imprint in a rock indicates that the rock is probably _____.
a.
volcanic
c.
metamorphic
b.
sedimentary
d.
igneous
 

 14. 

Urey and Miller subjected water, ammonia, methane, and hydrogen to heating and cooling cycles and jolts of electricity in an attempt to _____.
a.
determine how the dinosaurs became extinct
b.
form complex organic compounds
c.
determine the age of microfossils
d.
find out how ozone forms in the atmosphere
 

 15. 

Which event contributed most directly to the evidence of aerobic organisms?
a.
an increase in the concentration of methane in the ancient atmosphere
b.
a decrease in the sun's light intensity
c.
the presence of organisms able to carry on photosynthesis
d.
an increase in the number of organisms carrying on fermentation
 
 
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0170000.jpg
Figure 14-4
 

 16. 

According to Figure 14-4, what was the earliest form of multicellular life on Earth?
a.
fish
c.
land plants
b.
invertebrates
d.
reptiles
 

 17. 

According to Figure 14-4, the correct chronological order of organisms as they develop are _____.
a.
birds, dinosaurs, jawed fish, prokaryotes
b.
dinosaurs, jawed fish, birds, prokaryotes
c.
jawed fish, dinosaurs, prokaryotes, birds
d.
prokaryotes, jawed fish, dinosaurs, birds
 

 18. 

According to Figure 14-4, in how many eras have mammals existed?
a.
2
c.
5
b.
4
d.
7
 

 19. 

Hawaiian honeycreepers are a group of birds with similar body shape and size. However, they vary greatly in color and beak shape. Each species occupies its own niche and is adapted to the foods available in its niche. The evolution from a common ancestor to a variety of species is an example of _____.
a.
divergent evolution
c.
vegetative propagation
b.
cross-pollination
d.
convergent evolution
 

 20. 

The flying squirrel of North America closely resembles the flying phalanger of Australia. They are similar in size and have long, bushy tails and skin folds that allow them to glide through the air. The squirrel is a placental mammal, while the phalanger is a marsupial. These close resemblances, even though genetically and geographically separated by great distances, can best be explained by _____.
a.
convergent evolution
c.
spontaneous generation
b.
divergent evolution
d.
vestigial structures
 

 21. 

Within a decade of the introduction of a new insecticide, nearly all of the descendants of the target pests were immune to the usual-sized dose. The most likely explanation for this immunity to the insecticide is that _____.
a.
eating the insecticide caused the bugs to become resistant to it
b.
eating the insecticide caused the bugs to become less resistant to it
c.
it destroyed organisms that cause disease in the insects, thus allowing them to live longer
d.
the pests developed physiological adaptations to the insecticide
 

 22. 

Natural processes such as speciation and gradualism provide the genetic basis for _____.
a.
evolution
c.
biogenesis
b.
spontaneous generation
d.
sexual reproduction
 

 23. 

Structures that have a similar evolutionary origin and structure but are adapted for different purposes, such as a bat wing and a human arm, are called _____.
a.
embryological structures
c.
homologous structures
b.
analogous structures
d.
homozygous structures
 

 24. 

Natural selection can best be defined as the _____.
a.
survival of the biggest and strongest organisms in a population
b.
elimination of the smallest organisms by the biggest organisms
c.
survival and reproduction of the organisms that occupy the largest area
d.
survival and reproduction of the organisms that are genetically best adapted to the environment
 

 25. 

A pattern of evolution that results when two unrelated species begin to appear similar because of environmental conditions is _____.
a.
disruptive selection
c.
directional selection
b.
convergent evolution
d.
divergent evolution
 

 26. 

The average individuals of a population are favored in _____ selection.
a.
directional
c.
disruptive
b.
stabilizing
d.
natural
 

 27. 

In _____ selection, individuals with both extreme forms of a trait are at a selective advantage.
a.
directional
c.
disruptive
b.
stabilizing
d.
natural
 

 28. 

_____ selection favors one extreme form of a trait in a population.
a.
Directional
c.
Disruptive
b.
Stabilizing
d.
Natural
 

 29. 

What is the movement of genes into and out of a gene pool called?
a.
random mating
c.
gene flow
b.
nonrandom mating
d.
direct evolution
 

 30. 

Which of the following lines of evidence for evolution is indirect?
a.
pesticide resistance
c.
fossils
b.
observed allele frequency changes
d.
all of these
 

 31. 

Which answer BEST shows an animal's adaptation to the tropical rain forest?
a.
camouflage in a tree frog
c.
an elephant's long trunk
b.
the long neck of a giraffe
d.
migration of birds in winter
 

 32. 

A mechanism of Darwin's proposed theory is _____.
a.
artificial selection
c.
variation
b.
evolution
d.
all of these
 

 33. 

The founder of modern evolution theory is considered to be _____.
a.
Charles Darwin
c.
Stephen Jay Gould
b.
Alexander Oparin
d.
Lynn Margulis
 

 34. 

Upon close examination of the skeleton of an adult python, a pelvic girdle and leg bones can be observed. These features are an example of _____.
a.
artificial selection
c.
vestigial structures
b.
homologous structures
d.
comparative embryology
 

 35. 

Which combination of characteristics in a population would provide the greatest potential for evolutionary change?
a.
small population, few mutations
c.
large population, few mutations
b.
small population, many mutations
d.
large population, many mutations
 

 36. 

The theory of continental drift hypothesizes that Africa and South America slowly drifted apart after once being a single landmass. The monkeys on the two continents, although similar, show numerous genetic differences. Which factor is probably the most important in maintaining these differences?
a.
comparative anatomy
c.
geographic isolation
b.
comparative embryology
d.
fossil records
 

 37. 

Which of the following is not a factor that causes changes in the allelic frequencies of individuals in a population?
a.
stabilizing selection
c.
random selection
b.
directional selection
d.
disruptive selection
 

 38. 

When checking shell color for a species of snail found only in a remote area seldom visited by humans, scientists discovered the distribution of individuals that is shown in the graph in Figure 15-1. Based on the information shown in the graph, the snail population is undergoing _____.
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0400000.jpg
Figure 15-1
a.
stabilizing selection
c.
artificial selection
b.
disruptive selection
d.
directional selection
 

 39. 

What type of adaptation is shown in Figure 15-4?
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0410000.jpg
Figure 15-4
a.
mimicry
c.
artificial selection
b.
camouflage
d.
homologous structure
 

 40. 

The structures shown in Figure 15-5 are _____.
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0420000.jpg
Figure 15-5
a.
homologous
c.
analogous
b.
heterologous
d.
vestigial
 
 
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0430000.jpg
Figure 15-6
 

 41. 

Which type of natural selection showed in Figure 15-6 favors average individuals?
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 42. 

Which type of natural selection shown in Figure 15-6 would favor giraffes that need to reach the tallest branches to eat?
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 43. 

Why might the beak of the Akialoa, pictured in Figure 15-7, developed this way?
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0460000.jpg
Figure 15-7
a.
to reach nectar in flowers
c.
to scoop up fish
b.
to dig through tree bark for insects
d.
to crack open seeds
 

 44. 

Water is lost to the abiotic parts of the biosphere from the biotic parts by the process of _____.
a.
precipitation
c.
transpiration
b.
photosynthesis
d.
infiltration
 

 45. 

Nitrogen is released to the abiotic parts of the biosphere from the processes of death and _____.
a.
decay by bacteria
c.
runoff
b.
infiltration of groundwater
d.
lightning in storm clouds
 

 46. 

Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the biotic parts of the biosphere through _____.
a.
burning of forests
c.
combustion of fossil fuels
b.
photosynthesis
d.
all of these
 

 47. 

Some birds are known as honey guides because they may be followed by humans to wild beehives. When the humans take honey from the hives, the birds are able to feast on the honey and bees, too. This type of relationship can best be described as _____.
a.
parasitism
c.
mutualism
b.
commensalism
d.
symbiosis
 

 48. 

Sea stars live in saltwater ecosystems. Some species live in shallow tidal pools, while others live in the deepest parts of the oceans. This is a description of the _____ of sea stars.
a.
habitat
c.
niche
b.
community
d.
none of these
 

 49. 

Cougars are predators that often eat weakened or diseased animals. This is a description of the _____ of cougars.
a.
habitat
c.
niche
b.
community
d.
none of these
 

 50. 

An ecologist who studies how several species in an area interact among each other and with the abiotic parts of the environment is interested in the biological organization level called a(n) _____.
a.
organism
c.
community
b.
population
d.
ecosystem
 

 51. 

An ecologist who studies how several species in an area interact is interested in the biological organization called a(n) _____.
a.
organism
c.
community
b.
population
d.
ecosystem
 
 
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0550000.jpg
Figure 2-1
 

 52. 

Referring to Figure 2-1, suppose 10 000 units of energy are available at the level of the grasses. What is the total number of energy units lost by the time energy reaches the coyote?
a.
90 units
c.
9900 units
b.
990 units
d.
9990 units
 

 53. 

Referring to Figure 2-1, as matter and energy move from grasses to coyotes, the amount of available energy _____.
a.
increases
b.
decreases
c.
decreases then increases
d.
increases or decreases but population size remains the same
 

 54. 

Referring to Figure 2-1, the relationship between cats and mice could best be described as _____.
a.
predator-prey
c.
parasite-host
b.
scavenger-carrion
d.
consumer-producer
 

 55. 

Referring to Figure 2-1, the coyotes would be considered _____.
a.
herbivores
c.
second-order consumers
b.
third-order consumers
d.
decomposers
 

 56. 

Referring to Figure 2-1, energy flows from _____.
a.
coyotes to grasses
c.
mice to cats
b.
cats to mice
d.
coyotes to cats
 

 57. 

Where is the biosphere in Figure 2-4?
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0610000.jpg
Figure 2-4
a.
core
c.
upper mantle
b.
mantle
d.
earth’s crust
 

 58. 

Identify the abiotic factor labeled in the ecosystem shown in Figure 2-5.
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0620000.jpg
Figure 2-5
a.
mouse
c.
rock
b.
butterfly
d.
tree
 

 59. 

The group of animals in Figure 2-6 is an example of what?
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0630000.jpg
Figure 2-6
a.
community
c.
population
b.
ecosystem
d.
biosphere
 

 60. 

In the energy pyramid shown in Figure 2-7, which level has the smallest number of organisms?
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0640000.jpg
Figure 2-7
a.
fox
c.
grasshoppers
b.
birds
d.
grass
 

 61. 

The organisms growing on the log in Figure 2-8 are ____?
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0650000.jpg
Figure 2-8
a.
producers
c.
carnivores
b.
autotrophs
d.
decomposers
 

 62. 

Which organism shown in the pyramid shown in Figure 2-9 receives the highest percentage of energy from the sun?
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0660000.jpg
Figure 2-9
a.
fox
c.
grasshoppers
b.
birds
d.
grass
 

 63. 

What type of cycle is depicted in Figure 2-10?
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0670000.jpg
Figure 2-10
a.
carbon
c.
phosphorus
b.
water
d.
nitrogen
 

 64. 

What type of ecosystem is shown in Figure 2-11?
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0680000.jpg
Figure 2-11
a.
terrestrial
c.
acquatic
b.
population
d.
abiotic
 

 65. 

The organism shown in Figure 2-12 is involved in which type of symbiosis?
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0690000.jpg
Figure 2-12
a.
mutualism
c.
parasitism
b.
commensalism
d.
predatorism
 

 66. 

An uncut lawn becomes a meadow and eventually a forest. This process is an example of _____.
a.
aphotic zones
c.
estuary
b.
primary succession
d.
secondary succession
 

 67. 

A girl notices that her guppies reproduce most when her fish tank water is slightly alkaline. They stop reproducing if the water becomes acidic or if the water becomes too alkaline. This is an example of _____.
a.
secondary succession
c.
communities
b.
zones of tolerance and intolerance
d.
intertidal zones
 
 
Ling feeds her guppies one-half teaspoon of fish food every day. The average guppy population in her aquarium over a four-month period is 38 guppies. She increased the food to one teaspoon per day. After a four-month period, the average population is 53 guppies.
 

 68. 

Which of the following statements is supported by these data?
a.
The size of the aquarium was a limiting factor.
b.
One-half teaspoon of food was a limiting factor.
c.
As long as Ling keeps adding more food, the guppy population will continue to grow.
d.
Guppies reproduce rapidly.
 

 69. 

When Ling increased the amount of food, what happened to the carrying capacity of the aquarium?
a.
It increased.
c.
It remained the same.
b.
It decreased.
d.
It increased and then decreased.
 

 70. 

The stable ecosystem that develops due to succession _____.
a.
is called a niche
c.
is called a climax community
b.
is always a forest
d.
never changes
 
 
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0760000.jpg
Figure 3-3
 

 71. 

In Figure 3-3, where will you be most likely to find the greatest diversity?
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 72. 

In Figure 3-3, which section would have a lack of organisms due to an overabundance of resources?
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 73. 

In Figure 3-3, which section would account for a lower number of organisms near the bottom of a pond due to a short supply of oxygen and sunlight?
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 74. 

What type of succession is most likely to happen in Figure 3-4?
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0800000.jpg
Figure 3-4
a.
primary
c.
teriary
b.
secondary
d.
climax
 

 75. 

If you released a new species of deer into each of the stages shown in Figure 3-5, in which stage would the species be most successful?
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0810000.jpg
Figure 3-5
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 
 
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0820000.jpg
Figure 3-6
 

 76. 

Look at the graph in Figure 3-6. What does this graph tell us about this species of plant?
a.
too much sunlight can hurt them
c.
heat is damaging to them
b.
they thrive in a lot of sun
d.
they need plenty of water
 

 77. 

Look at the graph in Figure 3-6. Approximately how many hours of sunlight should these plants receive each day in order to make them grow at their optimum level?
a.
4
c.
16
b.
12
d.
20
 

 78. 

What would be the best time of the year to plant the organism described in Figure 3-6?
a.
winter
c.
summer
b.
spring
d.
fall
 
 
final_exam_study_gu_files/i0860000.jpg
Figure 3-7
 

 79. 

You take a sample of species from the area labeled A in Figure 3-7. What would you expect to find?
a.
almost no life
c.
organisms that need very little oxygen
b.
great species diversity
d.
one dominant species of fish
 

 80. 

What type of species would be most likely found in the area labeled D in Figure 3-7?
a.
one that requires plenty of oxygen
b.
plants that require light
c.
amphibians that need a warm habitat
d.
decomposers that feed on dead organisms
 

 81. 

The major threat to biodiversity is _____.
a.
habitat fragmentation
c.
habitat degradation
b.
habitat loss
d.
exotic species
 

 82. 

The major focus of conservation biology is _____.
a.
to prevent cruelty to animals
b.
to keep animals in zoos for people to see
c.
protect species from extinction
d.
stop hunting
 

 83. 

Acid rain changes the pH of soil, killing some trees. This is an example of _____.
a.
habitat fragmentation
c.
habitat degradation
b.
global warming problems
d.
exotic species
 
 
Table 5-1 shows the population sizes for 5 different species in four different areas.

Area
Species U
Species V
Species W
Species X
Species Y
Species Z
A
3
7
2
2
2
4
B
0
6
8
0
6
6
C
0
0
2
0
0
2
D
4
3
11
1
6
0
Table 5-1
 

 84. 

From Table 5-1, which species has the highest average population size?
a.
Species W
c.
Species Y
b.
Species X
d.
Species Z
 

 85. 

If the four areas in Table 5-1 were the only places in the world to find these organisms, which species most likely faces the greatest chance of extinction?
a.
Species U
c.
Species Y
b.
Species X
d.
Species Z
 

 86. 

Which area in Table 5-1 has the greatest biodiversity?
a.
Area A
c.
Area C
b.
Area B
d.
Area D
 

 87. 

If all four areas in Table 5-1 had identical climate and geology, which one would probably have the smallest area?
a.
Area A
c.
Area C
b.
Area B
d.
Area D
 
 
For many years orchid collectors searched Exotic Islands for the beautiful Kimmarie Orchid, which is found no place else in the world. After they found the orchid, they brought it back to their homes. In the last couple of years the Kimmarie Orchid has not been found on the island. As a result, hobbyists are now sending the Kimmarie Orchid to be replanted on the island.
 

 88. 

The Kimmarie Orchid became extinct in the wild due to _____.
a.
habitat loss
c.
habitat degradation
b.
exotics
d.
overcollection
 

 89. 

The hobbyists are trying to correct the Kimmarie Orchid problem they caused by using _____.
a.
exotic species
c.
habitat corridors
b.
a reintroduction program
d.
habitat fragments
 

 90. 

Island A has an area of 30 square kilometers. Island B has an area of 400 square kilometers. The islands are near each other. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true?
a.
Island A has greater biodiversity and a higher percentage of edge effect than Island B.
b.
Island A has less biodiversity and a higher percentage of edge effect than Island B.
c.
Island A has greater biodiversity and a lower percentage of edge effect than Island B.
d.
Island A has less biodiversity and a lower percentage of edge effect than Island B.
 

 91. 

Consider the following pairs of organisms: large predators and small predators; large herbivores and small herbivores; and migratory animals and non-migratory animals. The two animals most likely to suffer the most from habitat fragmentation are the _____.
a.
large predators and migratory animals
b.
large herbivores and large predators
c.
non-migratory animals and small herbivores
d.
migratory animals and large herbivores
 

 92. 

Which one of the following is NOT a cause of acid precipitation?
a.
sulfur dioxide from burning coal
b.
nitrogen oxides from car exhaust
c.
destruction of the ozone layer
 

 93. 

Carnivorous birds that fed on organisms exposed to this chemical produced fragile eggs. The chemical is _____.
a.
CFC
c.
DDT
b.
DNA
d.
nitrogen oxide
 

 94. 

Salvinia molesta, a floating aquatic plant, first entered Lake Naivasha in Kenya when a person's fish ponds flooded. The plant quickly grew, changing the habitat of parts of the lake. This is an example of a problem due to _____.
a.
reintroduction programs
c.
habitat fragmentation
b.
exotic species
d.
edge effect
 

 95. 

Which is NOT true of the U.S. Endangered Species Act?
a.
It was responsible for the creation of Yellowstone National Park.
b.
President Nixon signed it into law in 1973.
c.
It was partially responsible for the recovery of some threatened species.
d.
Other countries have created similar laws.
 

 96. 

A conservation biology organization wants to raise money to buy a strip of land to connect Protected Area A to Natural Park Area B. This strip would most likely serve _____.
a.
as a road for tourists
c.
to fragment the habitat
b.
as a wildlife corridor
d.
to slow ozone destruction
 

 97. 

Which of the following species is extinct?
a.
American bald eagle
c.
passenger pigeon
b.
bison (buffalo)
d.
giant panda
 

 98. 

Water and air pollution are examples of _____.
a.
habitat fragmentation
c.
edge effect
b.
habitat degradation
d.
sustainable use
 

 99. 

Which country has the fewest species of mammals?
a.
Canada
b.
United States
c.
Mexico
 

 100. 

If the communities in Figure 5-4 were put in order of least to most biological diversity, they would be _____.
final_exam_study_gu_files/i1100000.jpg
Figure 5-4
a.
ABCD
c.
DBCA
b.
CADB
d.
BDAC
 
 
final_exam_study_gu_files/i1110000.jpg
Figure 5-5
 

 101. 

What does the graph in Figure 5-5 tell you?
a.
the farther from land, the more biodiversity
b.
the larger the islet, the more biodiversity
c.
islet size and biodiversity are not related
d.
biodiversity decreases with islet size
 

 102. 

Using the graph in Figure 5-5, extrapolate what would happen to biodiversity on a large island or continent.
a.
biodiveristy would increase greatly
b.
biodiversity would decrease greatly
c.
biodiveristy would first increase, then decrease
d.
biodiversity would remain constant
 

 103. 

Using the information from the graph in Figure 5-5, predict what would happen to biodiversity if the ocean level increased.
a.
it would increase
c.
it would decrease
b.
it would remain the same
d.
it would disappear
 
 
final_exam_study_gu_files/i1150000.jpg
Figure 5-6
 

 104. 

What happened to species B in the graph shown in Figure 5-6?
a.
it increased in biodiversity
c.
it became carnivorous
b.
it decreased in population slightly
d.
it became extinct
 

 105. 

What effect did the loss of species B have on species A and D in Figure 5-6?
a.
it caused the populations of A and D to decrease
b.
it caused the populations of A and D to increase
c.
it caused the populations of A and D to become extinct
d.
it had no effect on the populations of A and D
 

 106. 

Suggest what happened to species E in Figure 5-6.
a.
it became extinct
c.
it stopped eating species B
b.
it replaced species B in its niche
d.
it started eating species A
 
 
Table:
Populations and Extinctions
  
Initial No.
 
Island
Area (km2)
of Species
Extinctions
A
850,000
175
25
B
300,000
140
35
C
90,000
80
50
Figure 5-7
 

 107. 

What is the percent loss of species on island A, according to Figure 5-7?
a.
12.5%
c.
25%
b.
14%
d.
30%
 

 108. 

What factor, according to the data in Figure 5-7, has the greatest impact on species loss?
a.
the original number of species
c.
the area of the island
b.
the distance from the mainland
d.
the climate
 

 109. 

Using Figure 5-7, predict what the approximate species loss would be on an island that is 500,000 km2 in size.
a.
less than 25
c.
between 35 and 50
b.
between 25 and 35
d.
more than 50
 



 
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